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Vce 8011 Format & 8011 Real Question

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PRMIA Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Exam Sample Questions (Q326-Q331):

NEW QUESTION # 326
The key difference between 'top down models' and 'bottom up models' for operational risk assessment is:

A. Bottom up approaches to operational risk are based upon an analysis of key risk drivers, while top down approaches consider causality in risk scenarios.
B. Top down approaches to operational risk are based upon an analysis of key risk drivers, while bottom up approaches consider causality in risk scenarios.
C. Top down approaches to operational risk calculate the implied operational risk using available data such as income volatility, capital etc; while bottom up approaches use causal factors, risk drivers and other factors to get an aggregated estimate of risk.
D. Bottom up approaches to operational risk calculate the implied operational risk using available data such as income volatility, capital etc; while top down approaches use causal factors, risk drivers and other factors to get an aggregated estimate of risk.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Top down approaches rely upon available data such as total capital, income volatility, peer group information etc and attempt to imply the capital attributable to operational risk. They do not consider firm specific scenarios or causal factors. Bottom up approaches on the other hand attempt to determine operational risk capital based upon an identification and quantification of firm specific risks. Bottom up approaches help determine a traditional loss distribution from which capital requirements can be determined at a given level of confidence.
Therefore Choice 'd' is the correct answer.

NEW QUESTION # 327
An assumption regarding the absence of ratings momentum is referred to as:

A. Time invariance
B. Herstatt risk
C. Markov property
D. Ratings stability

Answer: C

Explanation:
Choice 'c' is the correct answer. The Markov property is the assumption that there is no ratings momentum, and that transition probabilities are dependent only upon where the rating currently is and where it is going to.
Where it has come from, or what the past changes in ratings have been, have no effect on the transition probabilities. ('Herstatt risk' refers to settlement risk, and is irrelevant.)

NEW QUESTION # 328
Which of the following formulae correctly describes Component VaR. (p refers to the portfolio, and i is the i- th constituent of the portfolio. MVaR means Marginal VaR, and other symbols have their usual meanings.)

A. I
B. II
C. I and II
D. III

Answer: C

Explanation:
The first two formulae describe component VaR. The last formula is the formula for Marginal VaR. Therefore I and II is the correct answer.
Component VaR is a VaR decomposition technique that allows the total VaR for a portfolio to be broken down and attributed to the components of a portfolio. The total of the component VaR for each constituent of a portfolio is equal to the VaR for the portfolio. This property is extremely useful as opposed to the standalone VaR for each constituent taken alone as it can be used for allocating trading budgets.

NEW QUESTION # 329
Under the standardized approach to calculating operational risk capital under Basel II, negative regulatory capital charges for any of the business units:

A. Should be excluded from capital calculations
B. Should be offset against positive capital charges from other business units
C. Should be ignored completely
D. Should be included after ignoring the negative sign

Answer: B

Explanation:
According to Basel II, in any given year, negative capital charges (resulting from negative gross income) in any business line may offset positive capital charges in other business lines without limit. Therefore Choice 'b' is the correct answer.

NEW QUESTION # 330
The degree distribution of the nodes of the financial network is:

A. best approximated by a beta distribution
B. long tailed
C. normally distributed
D. non-linear

Answer: B

Explanation:
The 'degree' of a node in a network measures the number of links to other nodes. For the financial network, each market participant can be thought of as a node. The 'degree distribution' can be thought of as the histogram of the number of links for each node.
The financial network has a degree distribution with rather long tails - and therefore Choice 'd' is the correct answer. The other choices are incorrect. Long tailed networks have the property that they are robust when affected by random disturbances, but susceptible to targeted attacks, for example on key hubs.

NEW QUESTION # 331
......

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